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Q1. The aircraft flies from position 5000 N 17500 W to a new position 5000 N 17500 E crossing the international date line, the observer should –

Correct answer is – Increase date and LMT decreases

Q2. A co-located VOR/DME is being used to track on airway inbound on the 160 radial, at 60 NM DME range, the VOR indicates 336 on the OBS and FROM/TO reads ‘TO’, the aircraft position is –

Correct answer is – 4 nm starboard of the airway centre line

Q3. The radio altimeter determines aircraft height by –

Correct answer is – Comparing the frequencies of the outgoing and the incoming signals

Q4. Listed below are factors which change density altitude, select the factors, which increase the density altitude at a given airport: A. Decreasing barometric pressureB. Increasing barometric pressureC. Decreasing temperatureD. Increasing temperatureE. Decreasing relative humidityF. Increasing relative humidity

Q5. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted and a constant indicated altitude is maintained, the altimeter would indicate –

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level ( L-H-L) Indicated , TRUE

Q6. If the PNR is calculated to be 880 NM with 10,000 Kg of fuel available, the distance to the PNR with 11,000 Kg fuel available, other factors being equal, will be –

968

Q7. # Under which of the following circumstances will GPWS not give warning?

  • Correct answer is – Rising ground ahead
  • Traditional GPWS relies on a downward-looking radio altimeter and cannot detect steeply rising terrain directly ahead until it is too late for evasive action.
  • EGPWS will give this look ahead feature.

    • Q8. ## When fitted with mode ‘C’ transponders, a TCAS – 2 system may provide?

    Correct answer is – TA & RA in Vertical plane

    Q9. If the pulse length used in a primary radar is 4 microseconds, ignoring receiver recovery time, the minimum range at which a target can be detected is –

    Correct answer is – 600 meters

    Q10. If an aircraft with two static ports sideslips towards the blocked port, the altitude indication will?

    Correct answer is – Increase (open port is leeward – less pressure sensed , higher altitude )

    Q11. If radar has a beam width of 3 deg and a pulse of 4 micro seconds, the target azimuth resolution at a range of 60 nm will be approximately –

    3 nm ( use 1 in 60 rule )

    Q12. ## What are errors in a DGI? 1. Transport wander 2. Earth rate error3. Heading errors when pitching while banking4. Mechanical imperfection

    Correct answer is – All the above are correct

    Q13. While using the airborne weather radar in the weather mode, the strongest returns on the screen indicate –

    Correct answer is – Areas of high concentration of larger water droplets ( AWR detects presence of large water droplet , that may be area of possible turbulence.)

    Q14. The operational details of an aircraft are: maximum take off weight 72,000 kg, maximum landing weight 63,000 kg and maximum zero fuel weight 60,000 kg, burn off fuel 6.5 tons, reserve fuel 3.5 tons, operational weight of aircraft 42,000 kg. Calculate maximum payload that can be carried for this flight –

    Q15. For a flight from station ‘Z’, aircraft cruises at TAS 235 kt, track out bound 090 (T). FOB 2500 lbs, normal fuel consumption 255 lbs/hr and in case of one engine failure, reduced TAS and F/C are 180 kt TAS and 190 lbs/hr, respectively. Average wind component + 30 kt. What shall be the radius of action if one engine fails at the time of returning back to base ( or calculate engine failure PSR )?

    Correct answer is – 1122 nm

    Q16. A flight is made from VOR A (51° N , 01° W), local variation 8° W to VOR B (51° N , 06° W), local variation 9° W. Same radial is maintained throughout the flight. If drift is 7 starboard and aircraft flying great circle path, what is the heading (M) on departure?

    Correct answer is – 271 (M)

    Q17. Two aircraft start from the same position at the equator. Aircraft ‘A’ flies on track of 000 (T) for distance of 5400 nm whilst Aircraft ‘B’ flies on a track of 090 (T) a distance of 2500 nm. On reaching their destinations, the bearing of A from B will be –

    Q18. On a Mercator chart – radio bearing are plotted –

    Q19. A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is?

    Q20. An aircraft is over position HOI (55° 33′ N , 060° 15′ W), where YVR VOR (53° 30′ N , 060°15′ W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31° W at HOI and 28° W at YVR. What is the radial from YVR?

    Q21. X to Y, distance 123 nm, FL 130, OAT +7°, Headwind Component 25 kts. The required IAS to fly from X to Y in 42 minutes is:

    Q22. The aircraft is steering magnetic heading 155, RMI reads 330: (a) Which way would you turn to intercept magnetic 140 away from the NDB? (b) What would the RMI indicate at the point to intercept?

    Q23. #### An aircraft on its final approach. The ILS indicator show two dot left and two dots above the centre line with 3 nm DME range from the threshold. ILS has a four dot scale. Find distance from extended R/W centre line and the height of the aircraft above the threshold.

    Correct answer is – 115 meters right of centre line, 245 meters ( there is typo in RK bali Book )

    Q24. Standing on South Pole, which direction are you facing?

    Correct answer is – North

    Q25. After take off, VNAV will engage when:

  • Correct answer is – A thrust setting other than take off power is set and the altitude selected is initially above the aircraft current height.
  • (After takeoff, VNAV typically engages automatically at 400 feet AGL (above ground level), provided it was armed on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) before takeoff, the landing gear is retracted, and climb thrust is set.
  • VNAV can also be manually engaged anytime after takeoff, generally once the aircraft is cleaned up (flaps retracted)

    • Q26. Aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distance from position 04° 00’N , 030°00’W: 700 nm South, then 700 nm East, then 700 nm North, then 700 nm West. The final position of the aircraft is?

    Correct answer is – 04° 00′ N , 029° 55′ W

    Q27. TAS = 197kt , True course = 240°, W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered (M) in 39 NM. What is the approximate rate of descent?

    Correct answer is – 1400 FT/MIN

    Q28. Given: Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1970 NM ,Ground speed ‘out’ 495 kt, ground speed ‘back’ 465 kt, safe endurance 9 FLR. The distance from ‘Q’ to the point of safe return (PSR) between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ is:

    Correct answer is – 2157 NM

    Q29. The effect on the position of the CP ( critical Point ) of reducing the TAS in a head wind component, will be to:

    Correct answer is – Increase the distance

    Q30. Assuming the air temperature to be + 20 degree C, the local speed of sound will be –

    669 kt

    Q31. Assume an aircraft is flying in an area of high barometric pressure where region pressure setting is 960 mbs is 1000 hpa. It now transits into an area where the regional QNH is 960 mbs but the altimeter sub scale is maintained at 1000. The aircraft will now be flying:

    Correct answer is – 1200 ft. lower

    Q32. INS relies on:

    Correct answer is – Accelerometers and a gyro stabilized platform to measure acceleration and velocity and keep a continuous log of progress from initial erection to shut down

    Q33. What input is fed to the ADC: A. angle of attack B. TAT C. OAT D. dynamic pressure E. Static Pressure F. Total pressure G. AC electrical power H. automatic commands

    Q34. GPWS may give warning of: A. excessive sink rate B. excessive closure with terrain C. excessive proximity with ground when not in landing configuration D. excessive AOB

  • Correct answer is – A, B & C
  • ( excessive bank angle – in EGPWS )

    • Q35. Inputs to TCAS II include:

    Correct answer is – Mode S transponder to coordinate avoidance maneuvers

    Q36. After applying GPS differential correction to a raw position, the refined position will be:

    Correct answer is – Accurate to 1 to 3 meters

    Q37. In EFIS the triangle symbol represents:

    Correct answer is – The aeroplane indicates its position at the apex of the triangle is available on the H.S.I when MAP, VOR or ILS is selected and is coloured white

    Q38. To increase the maximum theoretical range of pulse radar system:

    Correct answer is – Reduce the PRF and increase the power

    Q39. A magnetic compass must be swing after:

    Correct answer is – Long term change in latitude ( if there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude )

    Q40. When a mode ‘C’ interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to:

    Correct answer is – 1013.2 hPa

    Q41. ## An aircraft is approaching to land and is exactly on the ILS glide slope as it crosses the outer mark (OM). The airport elevation is 2600 ft, Published OM Crossing Altitude is 4200 ft.QNH and Temp reported by ATIS is 1013 & 40 deg C, Which answer best describes the expected indicated altitude as the OM is crossed in these conditions:

    explanation – when you are approaching , altimeter set to QNH and indicate altitude you will follow as per the CHART, that is 4200.

    Q42. GRID MORA value clear all terrain and man made structures by:

  • Wrongly Marked in RK Bali book.
  • Correct answer & Explanation
  • Grid MORA (Minimum Off-Route Altitude) values provide terrain and man-made structure clearance of 1,000 feet in areas where the highest elevation is 5,000 feet MSL or lower, and 2,000 feet in areas where the highest elevation is 5,001 feet MSL or higher

    • Q43. You are flying magnetic heading 300, with the Omni-bearing Indicator to 300, the CDI needle showing 3 dots left and the TO flag showing. If the airplane is now turned to the reciprocal heading of magnetic 120. Assuming the selection remains unaltered, what would be the indications on VOR display?

  • There would not be any changes in the VOR indication
  • CDI does not have Heading sensing a ability. whereas HSI dial will rotate 180 degree.

    • Q44. In Doppler VOR (DVOR), the reference signal is _______, the bearing signal is ______, and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______.

  • AM, FM, anti-clockwise
  • Doppler VOR (DVOR)
  • ► Second generation VORs
  • ► Bearing accuracy is improved and reduces site error.
  • ► Reference signal is AM and variable signal is FM.
  • ► The phase relationship at the aircraft is the same.
  • ► Limacon rotates in anti-clockwise (in conventional VOR clockwise direction)
  • ► There is no means of knowing that your aircraft is tuned to the Doppler VOR or Conventional VOR.

    • Q45. If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading 090° to heading of 300°:

    Q46. The heading indicator is a

    Correct answer is – Directional gyro

    Q47. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be:

    Correct answer is – Less than the real altitude

    Q48. If the needle and the ball of a turn and slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate?

    Correct answer is – Turn to right and too much bank

    Q49. What is density altitude?

    Correct answer is – Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in the standard atmosphere

    Q50. Mach number is defined as:

    Correct answer is – The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure

    Q51. What happens when the static pressure supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked during a descent?

    Correct answer is – Indicates altitude at which blockage occurred

    Q52. INS relies on:

    Correct answer is – Accelerometers and a rate gyro stabilized platform to measure acceleration and velocity and keep continuous log of progress from initial erection to shut down

    Q53. Place A on 57°N 176°W & Place B 60°N 177°E. Calculate d long ?

    Correct answer is – 7°W

    Q54. An aircraft with its altimeter setting 1013 lands at an Aerodrome with Elevation = 1240’, QNH at Aerodrome = 1008. What will the altimeter read on touchdown?

    Correct answer is – 1375

    Q55. An aircraft at FL75 takes off from an Aerodrome with elevation 1500’, QNH aerodrome 1023.25. What is the true Vertical distance ?

    Q56. Stalling speed with landing configuration is called ?

    Correct answer is – Vs0

    Q57. Vmcg should not be less than ?

    Q58. Scale at Lambert conical conformal chart practically is ?

    Q59. Fuel consumption is 220 ltrs/hr with Density of 0.8. What would be the FC when density changes to 0.75 ?

    Correct answer is – 206 Ltrs/hr

    Q60. When turning error is maximum ?

    Correct answer is – When Turning through North/South direction at high latitudes

    Q61. What Squawk Code should be Entered while crossing an FIR ?

    Correct answer is – 2000

    Q62. What does Pitot Tube measure ?

    Q63. If Pitot source gets blocked during descent ASI will ____ , VSI will ____ & Altimeter will ____ ?

    Correct answer is – Under Read No effect, No effect Respectively

    Q64. Forward CG will cause ?

    Correct answer is – Higher Stalling speed

    Q65. An Aircraft flying a track inbound parallel to airway direction of 090°(M) compensating 5° drift and is 12nms starboard of the track. What will the ADF read when tuned to destination NDB 45 Nms away ?

    Correct answer is – 349°

    Q66. An Aircraft is to NDB on inbound track of 040°(M) is asked to intercept and proceed direct on to outbound track of 330(M) by intercepting the same at 40°. The aircraft should change heading to ?

    Q67. Turning Error is maximum in Nothern Hemisphere, when ?

    Correct answer is – Aircraft is turning through North South at High latitudes

    Q68. Aircraft “A” on a certain altitude at 60°N Parallel of latitude flies at a speed of 230kts and reaches back to the point from where it starts. Aircraft “B” on Equator does the same assuming that the time taken by both the aircraft is equal. What is the speed of Aircraft “B”?

    Correct answer is – 460kts

    Q69. Airspeed Entered in Col.15 of the flight plan is always ?

    Correct answer is – TAS

    Q70. ## Rhumb Lines on a polar stereographic projection:

    Q71. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on radial 064. The CDI shows 4 dots Fly right with a TO indication, at the same time co-located DME shows a range of 45 nautical miles. where is the aircraft in relation to the required track?

    Correct answer is – 6nm left of track

    Q72. Which of the following is a horizontal axis Tied gyro ?

  • Correct answer is – DGI ( Wrongly marked in RK Bali )
  • horizintal axis tied gyro – DGI
  • Vartical axis tied gyro – AH

    • Q73. In what way does IRS differ from INS?

  • Correct answer – has shorter spin up time and suffers from laser lock
  • ( Wrongly marked in RK Bali )

    • Q74. FL 330, Temperature = – 50 deg C ,RAS=310kt, What is mach number.

    Correct answer is – 0.87

    Q75. During compass swing the values of coefficients are A=+30, B=+2 and C= -10. What will be the expected deviation on Hdg 145°(C) in southern hemisphere?

    Q76. On Mercator chart if the scale at 30°N is 1:35,00,000, what will be scaled at 40°N?

    Q77. An aircraft is homing to a VOR, drift 10° starboard, variation at VOR Stn is 50° W and fix position 30°33’W. Give the initial heading to maintain a radial of 274°?

    Correct answer is – 084° M

    Q78. Aircraft present Hdg 170° (M), ADF 345° relative. Make 45° intercept of the 355° track out bound. What shall be the Hdg to intercept and ADF indication at the time of intercept:

    Correct answer is – 045; 130°

    Q79. If the PNR is calculated to be 880 NM with 10,000 Kg of fuel available, the distance to the PNR with 11,000 Kg fuel available, other factors being equal, will be

    Q80. The principal advantage of a gyro magnetic compass (slaved gyro compass) is:

    It combines the north-seeking ability of the magnetic compass with the stability of the direction indicator

    Q81. A remote indicating compass has usually less deviation error than a panel mounted compass because:

    Correct answer is – it is normally mounted in a part of the airplane where magnetic interference is minimal – Wingtip

    Q82. The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation:

    Correct answer is – the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

    Q83. AWR works in SHF band because:

    Correct answer is – Large water drops and storms give good reflection at 3 cm wavelength and small droplets like fog/mist stratus clouds do not give reflections.

    Q84. Flying at flight level 200, AWR return at range of 60 nm is identifiable when center of beam is tilted +1° and -4°. What is the height of the base and top of the rain bearing clouds. BW of AWR is 4°.

    Q85. The conical pencil beam of a weather radar is 5 degrees and the beam is tilted 4 degrees up. At this setting the tops of a cloud at range 70 NM just disappear. What is the approximate height of the cloud tops above the aircraft’s altitude?

    Q86. The transponder IDENT button is used:

    Correct answer is – When requested by ATC

    Q87. An airfield Surveillance radar is required to operate at a minimum range of 125 nms. The maximum pulse width of the transmission is:

    Q88. An aircraft flying towards a stationary transmitter measures a frequency shift of 2015 Hz. If the transmission frequency is 4.75 GHz, the aircraft’s GS is:

    Q89. An airborne weather radar has the following characteristics: Wavelength 3.2 cm. Pulse width 2.2 microseconds. Pulse recurrence frequency 400 pulses per second. The theoretical minimum range of the radar is:

    Q90. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second including processing time. The slant range from the ground transponder was:

    Q91. An aircraft flies from a cold air mass into a warm air mass at a constant FL and RAS. The Mach number will:

    Q92. The altitude in the ISA where a TAS of 480 kts equals Mach 0.82 is:

    Correct answer is – 31 500

    Q93. Runway 15, length 2 300 meters. Displaced threshold 15 metres, stopway 80 meters, clearway 150 meters. The accelerate-stop distance available is:

    Correct answer is – 2380 meters

    Q94. An aircraft is flying at FL350 at M0.81 with a headwind component of 125 kts in ISA +13°. The flight distance is 1 750 kms and the average fuel consumption is 150 lbs per hour. Total fuel reserves required are 9% of burn off plus 100 Imperial gallons. SG is 0.805. The amount of fuel that should be on board the aircraft at brake release is:

    Correct answer is – 18,052 lbs

    Q95. If 230 US gallons of fuel weigh 1 700 lbs, the specific gravity of the fuel is:

    Q96. Overhead ‘P’ (28°24’S 021°16’E) at 4 000 ft climbing to FL260. Mean RAS 150, constant ROC 650 fpm, initial HDG 267°(M), mean climb temperature –7°C mean climb W/V 140/30. The DR position at TOC is:

    Correct answer is – 28°52’S 019°10’E

    Q97. At 0831 an aircraft was overhead XYZ (28°32’S 028°45’E) maintaining radial 270° XYZ, TAS 150, HDG 280° (M). At 0922 it obtains a relative bearing of 125° W/T (280°05’02’E). The wind component is:

    Correct answer is – +15

    Q98. Positions X and Y are 960 nm apart. At 1205, aircraft A leaves position X en route to Y at GS 370 kts. At 1225, aircraft B leaves position Y en route to X at GS 290 kts. At what time will the aircraft pass each other?

    Q99. On a chart, scale 1: 1 000 000, the distance between 2 pinpoints is 30 cms. The time taken between these fixes is 45 minutes. What is the ground speed in knots per hour?

    Q100. An aircraft departs Y (73°43’S 034°15’W) at 0900Z, track 090° (T), and GS 425 kts. At 0150’00’’ W it flies due North at GS 422 kts. The ETA abeam of Y (19°35’S 013°45’W) is:

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